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Originally Posted by
KDaddy23
I would say that, from what I've personally seen and experienced, that men between the ages of 45 and 50 don't become more attracted to men as they do become more attracted to having sex with a man. There appears to be some social science associated with this, i.e., women not having sex for a lot of reasons including menopause but for as long as I've been bisexual (60 years), I have never figured out what "logic" takes place when a guy who's been heterosexual for 45/50 years decides that today is a good day to suck a cock. I have said that it's not a secret that there are men who have sex with men and some of them aren't gay - or so it's being said, right? Something tells a guy, "Hey, you aren't getting any from her, you don't want to cheat on her with another woman but there are guys who'll suck your dick without a lot of hassle and if you were of a mind to give it a try, hmm, really - how bad can it be when there are a gazillion men who suck cock?"
And, somehow, it all makes perfectly good sense. When I was in my mid-40s, I got with a guy in his 60s who wanted to experience man-sex for the first time and when I asked him why, he said, "I don't really know - it just sounds like the right thing to do." Later, he asked me if I minded if he told his closest friends about his cock-sucking experience and I said that he could. He said, "That's great because they would benefit from having their cock sucked and now that I know about it, I'm going to give them all blowjobs!"
I don't know if he did or not but the encounter left me wondering - again - why a man gets into his later years of life and decides to have sex with a man after spending the majority of his life being against such a thing...
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